Saturday, December 17, 2011
If the Bible is the infallible, inerrant Word of God, then why is what we have today not the complete Bible?
There was a council in the Middle Ages/Renaissance to determine what went into the Bible and what didn't based on the beliefs of those in attendance. Based on that, who is to say that any of the other books that have been discovered over time have absolutely no validity whatsoever in comparison? There was a reason those books were written in the first place yet they were shunned as blasphemy even today. What gives man the right to decide what God agrees with and doesn't? If the Bible was truly infallible and inerrant (its many discrepancies aside) why are those other books not included by man's decision? God could have ordered that they be included and then ignored.
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